aph3x
11-28-2000, 02:00 PM
i was reading a few articles over the holiday weekend concerning stack ovewrflow exploits and how they are used to gain root shell access.
my question is this: if i set /bin/false to be root's login shell and have, say, wu-ftp.xxx running suid root. wu-ftp.xxx just so happens to be vulnerable to stack overflows.
am i still vulnerable if root doesnt really have an actual shell? how could a root shell be spawned if there is no shell to use?
thanks http://www.linuxnewbie.org/ubb/biggrin.gif
my question is this: if i set /bin/false to be root's login shell and have, say, wu-ftp.xxx running suid root. wu-ftp.xxx just so happens to be vulnerable to stack overflows.
am i still vulnerable if root doesnt really have an actual shell? how could a root shell be spawned if there is no shell to use?
thanks http://www.linuxnewbie.org/ubb/biggrin.gif